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Question

asked Apr 11, 2019 184k views

2 Answers

Mohan Ram · Answer 1 · 2019-04-11T23:29:03+0000

Answer:

Slope of both the lines are same.

Explanation:

Line PQ contains points P(x,z) and Q(w,v)

similarly line P'Q' contains points P'(x+a, z+b) and Q'(w+a, v+b)

As we know slope of parallel lines are same, so to prove PQ and P'Q' we will show that these lines have same slope.

Slope of PQ =
(y_(2)-y_(1))/(x_(2)-x_(1))=(v-z)/(w-x)

Slope of P'Q' =
$\frac{y_{2-y_(1) } }{x_(2)-x_(1)}$

=
((v+b)-(z+b))/((w+a)-(x+a))

=
(v+b-z-b)/(w+a-x-a)=(v-z)/(w-x)

So slope of both the lines are same, and both the lines have slope equivalent to
((v-z))/((w-x))

Aaron Fi · Answer 2 · 2019-04-14T17:29:09+0000

The correct answer is: Option (A)
(v-z)/(w-x)

Explanation:
If both lines are parallel, then their slopes must be equal.

For the line PQ, the slope is:
Slope of PQ =
(v-z)/(w-x)

--- (1)

For the line P'Q', the slope is:
Slope of P'Q' =
(v+b-z-b)/(w+a-x-a)

Slope of P'Q' =
(v-z)/(w-x)

--- (2)

As (1) = (2), hence the lines are parallel and their slope is
(v-z)/(w-x)

(Option A).