Register

Why are the expressions 3(y-2) + 2 (y-2) and 5(y-2) equivalent?

Why are the expressions 3(y-2) + 2 (y-2) and 5(y-2) equivalent?
141k views
4 votes
Why are the expressions 3(y-2) + 2 (y-2) and 5(y-2) equivalent?

User Philar
by
8.0k points

1 Answer

1 vote
Because all three expressions have the same binomial factor (y - 2).
User BJ Miller
by
8.9k points
← Prev Question Next Question →

No related questions found

Ask a Question
Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

9.4m questions

12.2m answers

Categories

Other Questions

How do you can you solve this problem 37 + y = 87; y =
What is .725 as a fraction
How do you estimate of 4 5/8 X 1/3
Link Copied!