2 Answers

Elijah Murray · Answer 1 · 2019-10-07T19:39:13+0000

1/32 because 1/4 is the probability for the first one and then 1/8 for the next one. 4 times 8 = 32 so there is a 1 in 32 chance

Oleg V Karun · Answer 2 · 2019-10-13T21:24:01+0000

Answer:

The probability that you will spin "East" and "1" is:

(3)/(32)

As we know that the spinning of the first wheel is independent of the outcome of the spinning of the second wheel.

Let A denote the event of East.

B denote the event of 1 .

Let P denote the probability of an event.

A∩B denote the event of East and 1.

We are asked to find P(A∩B)

We know that:

P(A∩B)=P(A)×P(B)

( When the events A and B are independent )

From the image we have:

P(A)=1/4

and P(B)=3/8

( Since there are 3 '1' in the spinner out of total 8 outcomes)

Hence we get:

$P(A\bigcap B)=P(A)* P(B)\\\\\\P(A\bigcap B)=(1)/(4)* (3)/(8)\\\\\\P(A\bigcap B)=(3)/(32)$