Register
Why does 16 to the power of 0 equal 1?
57.3k views
2 votes
Why does 16 to the power of 0 equal 1?

User Fizzix
by
7.7k points

2 Answers

3 votes
16 to the power of 0 is one because any number to the 0 power is 1. This is because you aren't multiply 16 (or any number) by itself any amount of times.
User Paul Fryer
by
8.2k points
5 votes
16^0 = 1 because any number to the zero power is just the product of no numbers at all, which = 1.


hope this helps
User Hulk Choi
by
8.6k points
← Prev Question Next Question →

No related questions found

Ask a Question
Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

9.5m questions

12.2m answers

Other Questions

How do you can you solve this problem 37 + y = 87; y =
What is .725 as a fraction
How do you estimate of 4 5/8 X 1/3
A bathtub is being filled with water. After 3 minutes 4/5 of the tub is full. Assuming the rate is constant, how much longer will it take to fill the tub?
i have a field 60m long and 110 wide going to be paved i ordered 660000000cm cubed of cement  how thick must the cement be to cover field
Link Copied!