Register

Why did the french government use force against its own people

Why did the french government use force against its own people
40.5k views
1 vote
Why did the french government use force against its own people

User Gardner Bickford
by
7.8k points

1 Answer

6 votes
Because the people were not in full support of the government.
User David Ruttka
by
7.4k points
← Prev Question Next Question →

No related questions found

Ask a Question
Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

9.4m questions

12.2m answers

Categories

Other Questions

is it true or false that after the american revolution conflicts in the northwest territory erupted between remaining british soldiers and native americans
Who made dutch claims in north america?
How did world war 1 affect the racial and ethnic makeup of american cities
Link Copied!