61.2k views
0 votes
Can one angle of a parallelogram be equal to 40° and another one 50°? Justify your reasoning.

1 Answer

4 votes
Short answer: No! <<=====
If the two are one after another, then they are not supplementary, which a parallelogram requires.

If they are in opposite corners, they must be equal. That's another property of parallelograms.
User Ben Botvinick
by
7.9k points