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Is the measure of ∠1 equal to the measure of ∠2? Why?

yes, because they intercept the same arc
no, because the sides of ∠2 are longer
no, because they intercept the circle at different points

Is the measure of ∠1 equal to the measure of ∠2? Why? yes, because they intercept-example-1
User Stefanvds
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2 Answers

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*If you analyze the problem closely yo can see the answer is option a
the answer is yes, because they intercept the same arc*

User Dmitko
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Answer: The correct option is (A) Yes, because they intercept the same arc.

Step-by-step explanation: We are given a circle, with angles 1, 2 , 3 and 4.

We are to check whether the measure of ∠1 is equal to the measure of ∠2. If so, we are to state the reason.

According to a Circle's Theorem,

In a circle, the measures of the angles subtended by the same arc on the circumference of the circle are equal.

In the modified attached circle,

we can see that ∠1 and ∠2 are subtended by the same arc AB at points C and D respectively on the circumference of the circle.

Therefore, their measures must be equal.

Thus, the correct option is (A) Yes, ∠1 and ∠2 have equal measures because they intercept the same arc.

Is the measure of ∠1 equal to the measure of ∠2? Why? yes, because they intercept-example-1
User FOR
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