169k views
0 votes
Why was there no king from 1649 to 1660? James I was imprisoned. Charles I was executed and Parliament took control. Charles II was hidden in France by the Jacobites. James II was driven out of the country.

User Dionysis
by
8.4k points

2 Answers

5 votes
b. Charles i was executed and parliament took control
User Raghav Patel
by
8.5k points
5 votes
The correct option is this: CHARLES I WAS EXECUTED AND PARLIAMENT TOOK CONTROL.
Charles l was a king for three kingdoms: Ireland, Scotland and England. During his reign, Charles l quarelled withe the parliament of England, that were trying to control his royal excesses. This led to a war and at the end the king was capture and executed.
User Clcto
by
8.1k points
Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.