Is it true that since sin^2(x) + cos^2(x)=1, then sin(x) + cos(x) = 1? Explain

asked Aug 18, 2019 184k views

2 votes

8.2k points

Please log in or register to add a comment.

4 votes

No it is not true because the 2 expressions are not equal nor is sin^2 x + cos^2 x equal to the square of sin x + cos x.

Desolat answered Aug 19, 2019

8.4k points

4 votes

No.

An easy counterexample is sin(30°) + cos(30°) which is more than 1.

Laizer answered Aug 23, 2019

7.5k points

Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

8.8m questions

11.4m answers