Is it true that since sin^2(x) + cos^2(x)=1, then sin(x) + cos(x) = 1? Explain

asked Aug 18, 2019 184k views

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4 votes

No it is not true because the 2 expressions are not equal nor is sin^2 x + cos^2 x equal to the square of sin x + cos x.

Desolat answered Aug 19, 2019

8.9k points

4 votes

No.

An easy counterexample is sin(30°) + cos(30°) which is more than 1.

Laizer answered Aug 23, 2019

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