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Is (p∨q)∨(q→p) a tautology, contradiction, or neither?

User CalebC
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1 Answer

7 votes
Make a truth table, let A = pVq, B =q->p

p q A B AVB
0 0 0 1 1
0 1 1 0 1
1 0 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1

Since it is True for every possible state of p and q, then it is a tautology.
User GWay
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