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For anyone who know the hyperfactorial, is it a way to prove that
0^(0)=1? We can show that


H(1)=1^(1)H(0)


H(0)=1

User Solarnz
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2 Answers

2 votes

Answer:

No, the Hyperfactorial is not a way to prove that.

0 to the 0 power is just undefined, but it cannot be 1.

Explanation:

H(1)=1^{1}H(0)

The Hyperfactorial is defined as the result of multiplying a given number of consecutive integers from 1 to the given number, each raised to its own power.

No, since 1^1=1, H(1)—Consecutive Integer is 0.

0 is what you get in the end, no matter what.

User Sush
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8.0k points
1 vote

I don't think that there's a way to "prove" that
0^0 equals anything, since that quantity is undefined.

Moreover, the hyperfactorials are defined as


H(n) = 1^1\cdot2^2\cdot3^3\cdot\ldots\cdot n^n

So, claiming that
H(1)=1^1\cdot H(0) wouldn't be true, because
H(1) is already the case that solves the recursion.

User Marianella
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7.6k points

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