149k views
1 vote
HEEEEEEEEEELLLLLLPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPP ME !

HEEEEEEEEEELLLLLLPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPPP ME !-example-1

2 Answers

2 votes

Hello :3

To get your answer we would need to multiply.

So, if there's 8 fl. oz. in 1 cup then we need to multiply 8 by 4.

8 x 4 = 32

Your answer would be 32 fl. oz.

Hope This Helps!

Cupkake~

User Kian Ahrabian
by
8.6k points
2 votes

Answer:

B.) 72

Explanation:

Because when there is one cup there are 8 fluid ounces, when there are 9 cups there are 9 times more fluid ounces.


User Justin Albano
by
8.2k points

No related questions found

Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

9.4m questions

12.2m answers

Categories