6.9k views
2 votes
What is the solution to the equation -3d/a^2-2d-8 + 3/d-4 = -2/ d+2

2 Answers

1 vote

Answer:

D=1

Explanation:

User Antwane
by
8.4k points
4 votes

Answer:

d=1

Explanation:


(-3d)/(d^2-2d-8) +(3)/(d-4) =(-2)/(d+2)

Lets factor the denominator d^2 -2d-8

d^2 - 2d - 8 = (d-4)(d+2)


(-3d)/((d-4)(d+2)) +(3)/(d-4) =(-2)/(d+2)

Now make the denominators same

LCD: (d-4)(d+2)


(-3d)/((d-4)(d+2)) +(3(d+2))/((d-4)(d+2)) =(-2(d-4))/((d+2)(d-4))

Denominators are same on both sides

So equate the numerators

-3d +3(d+2) = -2(d-4)

-3d +3d +6 = -2d +8

6 = -2d + 8

subtract 8 on both sides

-2 = -2d

So d=1




User Rojanu
by
8.0k points

No related questions found

Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

9.4m questions

12.2m answers

Categories