Question

Is (1+sin beta)/(cos beta) equivalent to (cos^2 beta)/(cos beta- cos beta sin beta)

Answer 1

To answer your question, yes, they are equivalent, since

`(\cos^2\theta)/(\cos\theta-\cos\theta\sin\theta)=(1-\sin^2\theta)/(\cos\theta(1-\sin\theta))=((1-\sin\theta)(1+\sin\theta))/(\cos\theta(1-\sin\theta))=(1+\sin\theta)/(\cos\theta)`

Similar manipulations and simplifications will show that A, B, and D are all equivalent to the starting expression, so the answer would be C.