I would use the line, "Man cannot speak for us—because he has been educated to believe that we differ from him so materially, that he cannot judge of our thoughts, feelings and opinions by his own," because it implies that men do not understand women and "Let a man once settle the question that woman does not think and feel like himself and he may as well undertake to judge of the amount of intellect and sensation of any of the animal creation as of woman's nature." This line stems from the one prior to which we can infer than men judge women based off of how they compare to themselves, so there is no way they can truly understand the matter. This is just my opinion; apologies if this is completely wrong -- it appears to be an open ended question.