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Simply (tan^2 x - sec^2 x)(sin^2 x + cos^2 x)

User Neil N
by
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1 Answer

1 vote

we can use pythagorean identieis

remember that
sin^2(x)+cos^2(x)=1

also remember that
tan(x)=\frac{sin(x)}{cos{x}} and
sec(x)=(1)/(cos(x))

so if we take
sin^2(x)+cos^2(x)=1 and divide both sides by
cos^2(x) we get


(sin^2(x))/(cos^2(x))+(cos^2(x))/(cos^2(x))=(1)/(cos^2(x))


((sin(x))/(cos(x)))^2+1=((1)/(cos(x)))^2


tan^2(x)+1=sec^2(x)

subtracting
1+sec^2(x) from both sides


tan^2(x)-sec^2(x)=-1

now subsitute into original problem



(tan^2(x)-sec^2(x))/(sin^2(x)+cos^2(x))=


(-1)/(1)=


-1

the answer is -1

User Franz See
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6.9k points