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A game involving a pair of dice pays you $4 with probability 16/36, costs you $2 with probability 14/36, and costs you $6 with probability 6/36. what is your approximate probability of losing money in one play of the game?

User Kala J
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2 Answers

4 votes

Answer:

0.56 or 56%

Explanation:

Let x = winning amount in dollars, in a one play of the game.

there taxes values = -6, -2 and 4.

and P(x = -6) =
(6)/(36)

and P(x = -2) =
(14)/(36)

and P(x = 4) =
(16)/(36)

P (loosing money in one play of game) = P (x ≤ -2)

and P(x ≤ -2) = P ( x = -6) + P ( x = -2)

=
(6)/(36) +
(14)/(36) =
(20)/(36)

= 0.555555556 ≈ 0.56

Probability of losing money in one play of the game is 0.56 or 56%

User Batya
by
6.1k points
4 votes

Let the winnings in dollars in the single play of a game be "X".

Thus, in our case the only three values that X can take is +4 (or 4), -2 and -6.

It is also given that
P(4)=(16)/(36), P(-2)= (14)/(36) and
P(-6)=(6)/(36).

Therefore, the probability of losing money in a single play of the game will be the sum of the probability of the losses.

Thus,
P(loss in one play)=P(X=-6)+P(X=-2)=(6)/(36)+ (14)/(36)=(20)/(36)= (5)/(9).

Thus, the approximate probability of losing money in one play of the game is
(5)/(9) or 55.56% (approximately).

User Jordan Rolph
by
6.1k points