Answer:

Explanation:
If
, then
. It follows that
![\begin{aligned} \\(g(x+h)-g(x))/(h) &= (1)/(h) \cdot [g(x+h) - g(x)] \\&= (1)/(h) \left( (1)/(x+h) - (1)/(x) \right)\end{aligned}](https://img.qammunity.org/2019/formulas/mathematics/middle-school/wp7yzrgebt1q6jligb0l7j5xsn6gga1l7n.png)
Technically we are done, but some more simplification can be made. We can get a common denominator between 1/(x+h) and 1/x.

Now we can cancel the h in the numerator and denominator under the assumption that h is not 0.
