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Why does it not make sense to graph f and f−1 on the same set of axes?

Why does it not make sense to graph f and f−1 on the same set of axes?-example-1

1 Answer

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Here you have two graphs, one -- graph of the function y=f(x) on the coordinate plane with axes x and y, another -- graph of the function
x=f^(-1)(y) on the coordinate plane with axes y and x.

Actually, these graphs are graphs of the same function, only axes are changed.

It makes the sense to graph to functions
f(x) and
f^(-1)(x) on the same set of axes, not graphs of the same function
y=f(x) and
x=f^(-1)(y) on the different set of axes.

User Rishabh Batra
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