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4 votes
Given that θ =
(\pi)/(4) , which of the following shows that cosθsecθ = 1?

-
((√(2) )/(2))(√(2))
-
((√(3) )/(2))(2(√(3))/(3) )
-
(\frac{{1} }{2})(2)

User Xanatos
by
7.6k points

2 Answers

3 votes

Answer:

Option 1.

Explanation:

It is given that


\theta=(\pi)/(4)

We need to find the expression that shows
\cos \theta\sec \theta=1.

We know that,


\cos \left( (\pi)/(4)\right)=(1)/(√(2))

On rationalization, we get


\cos \left( (\pi)/(4)\right)=(1)/(√(2))* (√(2))/(√(2))=(√(2))/(2)


\sec \left( (\pi)/(4)\right)=√(2)

Now,


LHS=\cos \theta\sec \theta


LHS=\left((√(2))/(2)\right)(√(2))

Therefore, the correct option is 1.

2 votes


cos((\pi )/(4)) = (√(2))/(2) per Unit Circle


sec((\pi )/(4)) = (1 )/(cos((\pi )/(4))) = (1)/((√(2))/(2)) = (2)/(√(2)) = (2√(2))/(2) =
√(2)

cosθ * secθ = 1


(√(2) )/(2) *
√(2) = 1

1 = 1

Answer: A


User Catasaurus
by
8.7k points

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