Consider the expressions ab^2 and a^2 b^2 . are the two expressions equivalent? which properties did you use to prove or disprove the equivalency

Question

asked Sep 23, 2019 205k views

2 Answers

Dwana · Answer 1 · 2019-09-29T22:58:25+0000

Answer: No, they are not equivalent.

Explanation:

Since we have given that

$ab^2\ and\ a^2b^2$

No, the two expressions are not equivalent.

As we know that

a^2b^2 can be written as
(ab)^2

but
ab^2 can't be written as that .

$x=ab^2\\\\y=a^2b^2\\\\$

Suppose if they are equivalent then,

then,
$x=y\\\\frac{x}{y}=1$

So, if we put the values of x and y we get that

$(x)/(y)=(ab^2)/(a^2b^2)=(1)/(a)\\eq 1$

Hence, they are not equivalent.