37.9k views
3 votes
Consider the expression ab2 and a2b2. Are the two expressions equivalent? Which properties did you use to prove or disprove the equivalency?

User Caseq
by
9.2k points

1 Answer

2 votes

Let


x=ab^(2) \\ y=a^(2)b^(2)

we know that

if x and y are equivalent

then


(x)/(y) =1

so

Divide the value of x by y


(x)/(y) = (ab^(2))/(a^(2)b^(2))= (1)/(a) \\\\ (1)/(a) \\eq 1

therefore

The expressions are not equivalent

User Dan Thomas
by
8.0k points