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What is f−1(f(x)) = f(f−1(x)) = equal to????? please help

User Hvkale
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1 Answer

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the assumption here is that the function f(x), has an inverse function of f⁻¹(x), so let's assume that is indeed the case, f⁻¹(x) is the inverse function of f(x).


for functions and their inverse, if they're indeed inverse of each other, then


f⁻¹( f(x) ) = x

f( f⁻¹(x) ) = x.

User Jim Peeters
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