Register

Why was it impossible for Spain, or indeed any other European nation, to realize the extent of the territory Spain controlled after May 1493?

Why was it impossible for Spain, or indeed any other European nation, to realize the extent of the territory Spain controlled after May 1493?
81.9k views
4 votes
Why was it impossible for Spain, or indeed any other European nation, to realize the extent of the territory Spain controlled after May 1493?

User CFreed
by
8.4k points

1 Answer

4 votes

because nobody else found a route here except columbus in 1492

User Adeel
by
7.7k points
← Prev Question Next Question →

Related questions

User Feruza
asked Jul 17, 2021 121k views
1. From 1493-1640, which European Empire had claimed the most territory in the Americas?
Feruza asked Jul 17, 2021
by Feruza
8.1k points
1 answer
1 vote
121k views
User Oswaldo Acauan
asked Jan 3, 2021 155k views
1. From 1493-1640, which European Empire had claimed the most territory in the Americas? .
Oswaldo Acauan asked Jan 3, 2021
by Oswaldo Acauan
8.1k points
1 answer
4 votes
155k views
Ask a Question
Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

9.4m questions

12.2m answers

Categories

Other Questions

What goal of the constitution was also a goal of the Magna Carta?
Who made dutch claims in north america?
How did world war 1 affect the racial and ethnic makeup of american cities
Link Copied!