The mean value theorem states that, given a function
continuous in some interval
and differentiable in the same open interval
, there exists a point
such that

In your case, the function
is a polynomial, and as such it is continuous and differentiable infinite times on the whole real number set. So, in particular, it is continuous in
and differentiable in the same open interval
.
Moreover, the derivative of the function is

So, the statement of the mean value theorem becomes the following: there exists a point
such that

But we know that
is constantly 1, so we have

which is an identity, i.e. an equation which is always verified.
So, every point in
satisfies the mean value theorem.
Why? Well, the theorem states the existance of a point such that the tangent to that point (which is [/tex] f'(c) [/tex]) has the same slope as the secant connecting
and
.
But in this case,
is a line, which means that the said secant and the function itself are actually the same thing.