The mean value theorem states that, given a function
continuous in some interval
and differentiable in the same open interval
, there exists a point
such that
![f'(c) = \cfrac{f(b)-f(a)}{b-a}](https://img.qammunity.org/2019/formulas/mathematics/college/5s0r5p7us39n4i3ye6460573s0utqhtphp.png)
In your case, the function
is a polynomial, and as such it is continuous and differentiable infinite times on the whole real number set. So, in particular, it is continuous in
and differentiable in the same open interval
.
Moreover, the derivative of the function is
![f'(x) = 1](https://img.qammunity.org/2019/formulas/mathematics/college/1fi225r9kf13k3vcfuuylr1kqp3ijcwhah.png)
So, the statement of the mean value theorem becomes the following: there exists a point
such that
![f'(c) = \cfrac{f(63)-f(0)}{63-0}](https://img.qammunity.org/2019/formulas/mathematics/college/j97vyp7wenjvar884jf99bxhlbhdk79nk4.png)
But we know that
is constantly 1, so we have
![1 = \cfrac{64-1}{63-0} = \cfrac{63}{63}](https://img.qammunity.org/2019/formulas/mathematics/college/3l3ryclvuz6osjadt40373imnlst0idpqx.png)
which is an identity, i.e. an equation which is always verified.
So, every point in
satisfies the mean value theorem.
Why? Well, the theorem states the existance of a point such that the tangent to that point (which is [/tex] f'(c) [/tex]) has the same slope as the secant connecting
and
.
But in this case,
is a line, which means that the said secant and the function itself are actually the same thing.