If f(x) and g(x) were the same function, they would produce identical outputs from identical inputs. If we can find a single example where they don't, we've proven that they're distinct.
Take x = 3, for instance. For f(3), we find

while for g(3):

From this example, we can see that we're dealing with two nonequivalent functions.
EDIT: I've realized that I made a pretty big gaffe here, since

My argument would actually be incorrect in this case, then, and Konrad's would be more appropriate.