2 Answers

Joeellis · Answer 1 · 2019-01-02T20:53:25+0000

bearing in mind that parallel lines have the same exact slope, wait a minute, what is the slope of that line in the graph anyway?

$\bf (\stackrel{x_1}{0}~,~\stackrel{y_1}{2})\qquad (\stackrel{x_2}{3}~,~\stackrel{y_2}{0}) \\\\\\ % slope = m slope = m\implies \cfrac{\stackrel{rise}{ y_2- y_1}}{\stackrel{run}{ x_2- x_1}}\implies \cfrac{0-2}{3-0}\implies \cfrac{-2}{3}$

Anka · Answer 2 · 2019-01-08T11:23:26+0000

The slope would be the same as that line if they are parallel. The slope of that line is 2/3 because rise of 2 over run of 3.

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