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A recipe calls for 1 part beans to 1-1/2 parts rice. If 1-1/2 parts of beans are used how much rice should be used

User Manuzor
by
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2 Answers

1 vote
I think the answer is 2 parts rice. If you added half to the beans, do it to the rice too.
User Ravishi
by
8.1k points
4 votes

Answer:


2(1)/(4) part of rice should be used.

Explanation:

A recipe calls for 1 part beans to
1(1)/(2) part rice.

If
1(1)/(2) parts of beans used,

rice should be =
1(1)/(2) ×
1(1)/(2)

=
(3)/(2) ×
(3)/(2)

=
(9)/(4)

=
2(1)/(4) part or 2.25 parts rice


2(1)/(4) part of rice should be used.

User Aravvn
by
7.7k points

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