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When the domain of a function has an infinite number of values, the range always has an infinite number of values. True or false

User Hyprstack
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8 votes

Answer:

Thus, the statement is False!

Explanation:

When the domain of a function has an infinite number of values, the range may not always have an infinite number of values.

For example:

Considering a function


f(x) = 5

Its domain is the set of all real numbers because it has an infinite number of possible domain values.

But, its range is a single number which is 5. Because the range of a constant function is a constant number.

Therefore, the statement ''When the domain of a function has an infinite number of values, the range always has an infinite number of values'' is FALSE.

Thus, the statement is False!

User Nick Davies
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