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Is it possible for a country to have a comparative advantage in producing a good without also having an absolute​ advantage? A country without an absolute advantage in producing a good

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A country would have a comparative advantage to produce a good if the cost of producing this good, even if it produces efficiently, is higher than that of other countries.

Step-by-step explanation:

The Competitive Vantage Principle explains how an individual produces more commodities and uses fewer goods with a comparative advantage under freer trade.

For example, the comparative advantage of oil-producing countries in chemical products. Compared to countries that are not there, the local manufactured oil is a cheap source of chemicals.

It can produce products with fewer resources, which offers countries a comparative advantage at lower incentive costs. The PPF's gradient reflects the cost of output capacity. Improving one good's production means producing less of one.

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