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A 24-year-old woman undergoing a premarital screening test is found to have elevated levels of AST, ALT, and IgG, but no antibody-specific markers for viral hepatitis. A liver biopsy reveals inflammation and cellular damage. Which of the following treatments is most likely to be effective for her?

A) Lamivudine
B) Peginterferon and ribavirin
C) Interferon alfa-2b
D) Corticosteroids and immunosuppressant drugs

User Hmahdavi
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2 Answers

6 votes

Answer:

Immunosuppressants drugs and Corticosteroids

Step-by-step explanation:

Corticosteroids are the mainstay of treatment and have been shown to produce remission.

User Nith
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5.7k points
6 votes

Answer:

Corticosteroids and immunosuppressant drugs

Step-by-step explanation:

The Woman is probably down with Autoimmune Hepatitis which may have been induced by genetic, or environmental factors ( possibly viral infection). Autoimmune hepatitis arises when the immune system of a person attack its own cells in this case the liver cell. This can lead to inflammation of the liver, scarring of the liver (cirrhosis) or possibly liver failure. People can be asymptomatic ( showing no symptoms) but in people with symptoms, jaundice (yellowness of the skin and eyes) pruritis (itching skin) and others is often seen.

Treatment will be administration of immunosuppressant drugs such as Azathioprine, in combination with corticosteriods (prednisone) to lower the immune system. Other immunosuppressive drug used in treatment include mycophenoate mofetil and cyclosporine. People may not to respond to treatment or might have complication due to toxicity of the drug in such case Liver transplant may be necessary if the damage is enormous. `

User Asle
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