Answer:
2 (i think)
Explanation:
(im like 90% sure im right here...)
You take the 1-cos²(x) and turn it into sin²(x) because of the Pythagorean identity of Cos²x+Sin²x=1. You can do the same with the 1-sin²x and turn it into cos²x.
This leaves you with:
(√sin²x)/sinx and (√cos²x)/cosx
Then pretty much all you have to do from here is simplify
√sin²x is equal to sinx and similar goes for √cos²x
then you have sin/sin + cos/cos
This simplifies to 1+1
And as we all know 1+1=2