Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Year Cashflow DF@10% PV DF@5% PV
$ $ $
0 (960.4) 1 (960.4) 1 (960.4)
1-10 63.2 6.1446 388 7.7217 488
10 1,000 0.3855 386 0.6139 614
NPV (186) NPV 142
Kd = LR + NPV1/NPV1+NPV2 x (HR – LR)
Kd = 5 + 142/142 + 186 x (10 – 5)
Kd = 5 + 142/328 x 5
Kd = 7.16%
b. Kp = D/Po
Kp = $1.25/$13
Kp = 0.096 = 9.6%
c. Ke = D1/Po + g
Ke = $4/$54 + 0.04
Ke = $4/$54 + 0.04
Ke = 0.1141 = 11.41%
d. WACC = Kd(D/V)(1 – T) + Kp(P/V) + Ke(D/V)
WACC = 7.16($816,340/$1,961,340) + 9.6($65,000/$1,961,340) + 11.41($1,080,000/$1,961,340)
WACC = 2.98 + 0.32 + 6.28
WACC = 3.58%
Market value of the firm: $
Market value of debt ($850,000 x $960.4/$1,000 = 816,340
Market value of preferred stocks (5,000 x $13) = 65,000
Market value of common stock (20,000 x $54) = 1,080,000
Market value of the firm 1,961,340
Step-by-step explanation:
In this case, we need to calculate the after-tax cost of debt. The current market price of the bond less floatation cost is the cashflow for year 0 (980 - 19.6 = 960.4). The after-tax coupon on the bond is the cashflow for year 1-10. The after-tax coupon is calculated as R(1-T), which is equal to 80(1-0.21) = $63.2. The cashflow for year 10 is the par value. Then, we will discount the cashflows for 10 years. Thus, we will apply internal rate of return formula to determine the cost of bond.
Cost of preferred stocks is equal to dividend paid divided by the current market price.
Cost of common stock is equal to expected dividend divided by the current market price plus growth rate.
WACC is calculated by considering the cost of each stock multiplied by the proportion of each stock to the market value of the company.