Answer:
the answer D=1.44
Explanation:
if the X= number of red cards observed in 6 trials , since each card observation is independent from the others and the sampling process is done with replacement ( the card is observed, then returned and reshuffled) , X follows an binomial distribution.
X(x)= n!/((n-x)!*x!) *p^x *(1-p)^(n-x)
where n = number of trials = 6 , x= number of red cards observed , p= probability of obtaining a red card in one try
the probability of obtaining the card in one try is
p = number of red cards / total number of cards = 12/ (12+8) = 0.6
since we know that X has a binomial distribution, the variance of this kind of distribution is
variance = σ² = n * p * (1-p)
therefore the variance of X is
variance = σ² = n * p * (1-p) = 6 * 0.6 * (1-0.6) = 1.44