Answer:
Please see explanation.
Step-by-step explanation:
We will begin by finding the market value of each type of financing.
We find: MVD= 135,000($1,000)(1.14) = $153,900,000 MVE= 8,500,000($34) = $289,000,000 MVP= 250,000($91) = $22,750,000 And the total market value of the firm is: V = $153,200,900 + 289,000,000 + 22,750,000 = $465,650,000
So, the market value weights of the company’s financing is:D/V = $153,900,000/$465,650,000= .3305 P/V = $22,750,000/$465,650,000 = .0489 E/V = $289,000,000/$465,650,000 = .6206 b.
For projects equally as risky as the firm itself, the WACC should be used as the discount rate. First we can find the cost of equity using the CAPM. The cost of equity is: RE= .04 + 1.25(.075) = .13375 or 13.375% The cost of debt is the YTM of the bonds, so: P0= $1140 = $37.5(PVIFAR%,30) + $1,000(PVIFR%,30) R = 3.033% YTM = 3.033% × 2 = 6.066% And the aftertax cost of debt is: RD= (1 –.35)(.06066) = .039429 or 3.9429%
The cost of preferred stock is: RP= $5/$91 = .0549 or 5.49% Now we can calculate the WACC as: WACC = .039429(.3305) + .13375(.6206) + .0549(.0489) = .09872 or 9.872%