Help me ASAP this should be easy to someone

asked May 9, 2020 173k views

0 votes

5.6k points

Please log in or register to add a comment.

4 votes

Answer:

the answer is c because ef was dialted by 0.5 causing it to be divided by 2 if it make any sense.

Tofu answered May 12, 2020

by Tofu

4.9k points

5 votes

Answer:

Explanation:

This is because it is given that the E'F' is 1/2 of EF because of the scale factor 1/2

Wil Cooley answered May 15, 2020

5.7k points

Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

5.9m questions

7.7m answers