Answer:
Zero
Step-by-step explanation:
Two long parallel wires each carry the same current I in the same direction. The magnetic field in wire 1 is given by :

Magnetic force acting in wire 2 due to 1 is given by :


Similarly, force acting in wire 1 is given by :
According to third law of motion, the force acting in wire 1 will be in opposite direction to wire 2 as :

So, the total magnetic field at the point P midway between the wires is in what direction will be zero as the the direction of forces are in opposite direction.