Answer:
Yes. The male and female consumers differ in the amounts they spend.
Explanation:
We can express the null and alternative hypothesis as:
![H_0: \mu_m=\mu_w\\\\H_1: \mu_m\\eq\mu_w](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/mathematics/college/8x9vmrvjpsojspwvdilqrux5zfpogifwy8.png)
It is assumed a significance level of 0.05.
The standard deviation of the difference of means is calculated as:
![s=\sqrt{(s_m^2)/(n_m) +(s_w^2)/(n_w) } =\sqrt{(35^2)/(40) +(20^2)/(30) } =√(30.625+13.333) =√(43.958) =6.63](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/mathematics/college/s7p9dn77eutzlo35buaxmig6ixm70iq2np.png)
The test statistic is
![t=((M_m-M_w)-0)/(s)=(135.67-68.64)/(6.63)=10.11](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/mathematics/college/41kywx60ufj4t3u9j264e06tn29my9wnhv.png)
The degrees of freedom are:
![df=n_1+n_2-2=40+30-2=68](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/mathematics/college/obloieawc4la57jfe9wbst69edrcp1t7s4.png)
The P-value for t=10.11 is P=0, so it is smaller than the significance level. The null hypothesis is rejected.
We can conclude that male and female consumers differ in the amounts they spend.