134k views
0 votes
Apply the Binomial Theorem to the expression (x^2+1)^2

User Pmadhu
by
5.0k points

2 Answers

5 votes

Answer:

x^4 + 2x^2 + 1

Explanation:

Using Pascal's Triangle, we end up with the following set of coefficients in a triangular form:

1

1 2 1

The coefficients 1, 2 and 1 are used as follows:

1(x^2)^2 + 2(x^2) + 1(1)^2, or

x^4 + 2x^2 + 1

Therefore the given expression (x^2+1)^2 is equivalent to the expanded form x^4 + 2x^2 + 1 .

User VerizonW
by
6.3k points
0 votes

Answer:

Explanation:

(x^2 +1)(x^2 +1)

x^4 +x^2+x^2 +1

x^4+2x^2 +1 answer

Hope this helps!

User BigTallJosh
by
5.6k points
Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.