If f : {0, 1} n → {0, 1} m is a one way function, g : {0, 1} m → {0, 1} n is also a one way function.
(1). Would F = g ◦ f : {0, 1} n → {0, 1} n be a one way function? Here F(x) = g(f(x)).
(2). If g or f is not one way, would F still be one way? Please briefly explain your answer.