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If f : {0, 1} n → {0, 1} m is a one way function, g : {0, 1} m → {0, 1} n is also a one way function.

(1). Would F = g ◦ f : {0, 1} n → {0, 1} n be a one way function? Here F(x) = g(f(x)).
(2). If g or f is not one way, would F still be one way? Please briefly explain your answer.

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Quit school and run away
User Dania
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