First part
The wavefunction is

As we know, the wavefunction is normalized if:

Lets prove it:


Lets take the first integral

we can use the substitution

when x= 0 then y = 0, and when
,



inverting the limits of integration to take care of the minus sign

but this is the second integral!!!
so

now, we can see that

so



![\int\limits^(\infty ) _(-\infty ) \, dx = -1 * [ \right e^(-2x) \left ] ^(\infty ) _(0 )](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/physics/college/225541pnfwzpfl3b522wuopaxrwfz5iscc.png)
![\int\limits^(\infty ) _(-\infty ) \psi(x) \, dx = -1 * [ ( \lim_(x\rightarrow \infty ) e^(-2x) ) -e^(-2*0) ]](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/physics/college/xf0y5bg2bnyuxtyslhl3szw2yuxu50xqxt.png)


This is what we wanted to show!
Second part
We just need to obtain
:

We can use the same approach:




![p(|x| \le 0.5) = -1 * [ \right e^(-2x) \left ] ^(0.5) _(0 )](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/physics/college/xmkszp5hceqyb1l6krza0srte8h7yyk8h0.png)

