Answer:
"The expression will always equal m" is true about the quotient of
÷
Explanation:
Let us solve the question
∵ The expression is
÷
![(1)/(n)](https://img.qammunity.org/2022/formulas/mathematics/high-school/e8wrice2xnjhq5hkcgz5o8h9bwtlw8wcup.png)
→ In the division of fractions, we change the division to multiplication
and reciprocal the fraction after the division sign
∵ The reciprocal of
is
∴
÷
=
×
![(n)/(1)](https://img.qammunity.org/2022/formulas/mathematics/high-school/9agj34go8tdjyiidv7a3jxtoa0kl039csl.png)
→ In the multiplication of fractions, we can simplify the terms in
the numerators by the terms in the denominators
∵ There is n in the numerator and denominator
∴ Cancel n up and down
∴
×
=
![(m)/(1)](https://img.qammunity.org/2022/formulas/mathematics/high-school/2mld0ev1rdlfyq7zrm2g7993xxtwr6fxvu.png)
∴
×
= m
∴
÷
= m
∴ The quotient is m
∴ The expression will always equal m