DISCLAIMER: Please let me rename b and w the number of black and white balls, for the sake of readability. You can switch the variable names at any time and the ideas won't change a bit!
(a)
Case 1: both balls are white.
At the beginning we have
balls. We want to pick a white one, so we have a probability of
of picking a white one.
If this happens, we're left with
white balls and still
black balls, for a total of
balls. So, now, the probability of picking a white ball is
![(w-1)/(b+w-1)](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/mathematics/college/y07ce5vj8f4776jcdo0e1doqj837aieeyt.png)
The probability of the two events happening one after the other is the product of the probabilities, so you pick two whites with probability
![(w)/(b+w)\cdot (w-1)/(b+w-1)=(w(w-1))/((b+w)(b+w-1))](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/mathematics/college/6z8tiwhb6k10lu4ospkz52wndb7narbzld.png)
Case 2: both balls are black
The exact same logic leads to a probability of
![(b)/(b+w)\cdot (b-1)/(b+w-1)=(b(b-1))/((b+w)(b+w-1))](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/mathematics/college/o4pzm5h3ziuxwnxwqhab6182jdyxs56d97.png)
These two events are mutually exclusive (we either pick two whites or two blacks!), so the total probability of picking two balls of the same colour is
![(w(w-1))/((b+w)(b+w-1))+(b(b-1))/((b+w)(b+w-1))=(w(w-1)+b(b-1))/((b+w)(b+w-1))](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/mathematics/college/t8fda1n9uv11rpo6dkbkv9iphkjaqxau0q.png)
(b)
Case 1: both balls are white.
In this case, nothing changes between the two picks. So, you have a probability of
of picking a white ball with the first pick, and the same probability of picking a white ball with the second pick. Similarly, you have a probability
of picking a black ball with both picks.
This leads to an overall probability of
![\left((w)/(b+w)\right)^2+\left((b)/(b+w)\right)^2 = (w^2+b^2)/((b+w)^2)](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/mathematics/college/mz5k6kyh7efxacft2zktoduaix8zlmthou.png)
Of picking two balls of the same colour.
(c)
We want to prove that
![(w^2+b^2)/((b+w)^2)\geq (w(w-1)+b(b-1))/((b+w)(b+w-1))](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/mathematics/college/3y5r7kkzdndbhobw56cdqiwjghysjz48ii.png)
Expading all squares and products, this translates to
![(w^2+b^2)/(b^2+2bw+w^2)\geq (w^2+b^2-b-w)/(b^2+2bw+w^2-b-w)](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/mathematics/college/d7drtu5yn2dyjym7v195a34ib5ovxto632.png)
As you can see, this inequality comes in the form
![(x)/(y)\geq (x-k)/(y-k)](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/mathematics/college/vtjkjg4mooait7b5i5nh7u92c2t8dxrb6j.png)
With x and y greater than k. This inequality is true whenever the numerator is smaller than the denominator:
![(x)/(y)\geq (x-k)/(y-k) \iff xy-kx \geq xy-ky \iff -kx\geq -ky \iff x\leq y](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/mathematics/college/g5giibj9rwyn49vjzaqy66b1zvra0kvodw.png)
And this is our case, because in our case we have
![x=b^2+w^2](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/mathematics/college/kagjymq8pczguedar7d77q96jupzy26onp.png)
so, y has an extra piece and it is larger
which ensures that k<x (and thus k<y), because b and w are integers, and so b<b^2 and w<w^2