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Use induction to prove that for all integers n 2 1 we have 1.1! +2.2! +3.3! + ... +nin! = (n + 1)! - 1.

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Let
P(n) be the statement that


1\cdot1!+2\cdot2!+\cdots+n\cdot n!=(n+1)!-1

For
n=1, we have
P(1) true, since


1\cdot1!=1

and


(1+1)!-1=2!-1=2-1=1

Assume
P(k) is true. Then


1\cdot1!+2\cdot2!+\cdots+k\cdot k!=(k+1)!-1

Then for
n=k+1 we have


1\cdot1!+2\cdot2!+\cdots+k\cdot k!+(k+1)\cdot(k+1)!=(k+1)!-1+(k+1)\cdot(k+1)!

because
P(k) is assumed to be true, then


(k+1)!-1+(k+1)(k+1)!=(k+1)!(1+(k+1))-1=(k+2)\cdot(k+1)!-1=(k+2)!-1

and so
P(n) is true for all
n. QED

Alternatively, no induction is needed, since


(n+1)!=(n+1)\cdot n!=n\cdot n!+n!

so


1\cdot1!+2\cdot2!+\cdots+n\cdot n!=(2!-1!)+(3!-2!)+\cdots+((n+1)!-n!)=(n+1)!-1!


\implies1\cdot1!+2\cdot2!+\cdots+n\cdot n!=(n+1)!-1

User Volodymyr Bilovus
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