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4 votes
An opaque bag contains 5 green marbles, 3 blue marbles, and 2 red marbles. Two marbles are randomly drawn without replacement. P(2nd draw: blue | 1st draw: red)

A 1/5

B 3/10

C 2/9

D 1/3

User Andrepnh
by
3.9k points

2 Answers

2 votes

Answer:

the first draw has a 20% chance of happening. the second has 33% chance of happening 33% of 20% is 6.6% in other word there is a 6.6% chance of u geting a red then a blue

Explanation:

3 ÷ 9 = 1/3 or 0.3333333333333

User Jeyaganesh
by
4.9k points
3 votes

Answer: D.
(1)/(3)

Explanation:

Given : The number of blue balls in bag = 3

The number of red balls in the bag = 2

Total marbles =5+2+3=10

The probability of drawing first marbles as red :-


\frac{\text{Number of red marbles}}{\text{Total marbles}}\\\\=(2)/(10)

After this , the probability of drawing a blue marbles :-


\frac{\text{Number of blue marbles}}{\text{Total marbles left}}\\\\=(3)/(9)=(1)/(3)

i.e.
\text{P(2nd draw: blue }|\text{ 1st draw: red)}=(1)/(3)

User Dylan Tack
by
4.9k points