Answer:
The given function is differentiable at y = 1.
At y = 1, f'(z) = 0
Explanation:
As per the given question,

Let z = x + i y
Suppose,


On computing the partial derivatives of u and v as:


And


According to the Cauchy-Riemann equations

Now,


Therefore,
holds only.
This means,
2y - 2 = 0
⇒ y = 1
Therefore f(z) has a chance of being differentiable only at y =1.
Now we can compute the derivative
![f'(z)=(1)/(2)[(u'_(x)+iv'_(x))-i(u'_(y)+iv'_(y))]](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/mathematics/college/u0h3vrhr2adbx3d3wrj09tik48rtyv2pi4.png)
![f'(z) =(1)/(2)[(2x+i(2-2y))-i(2y-2+i(-2x))]](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/mathematics/college/2jhiwhpq12584lzhezgi9zlw2wg4d3iz40.png)

At y = 1
f'(z) = 0
Hence, the required derivative at y = 1 , f'(z) = 0