Answer:
Present value of cash flows should be $1,307,822
Step-by-step explanation:
We cannot use annuity formula for this problem because the amount of cash flows occurring in each year is different and we would need to find the present value of each cash flow separately
The present value of the cash flow can be computed using the following formula
PV = FV/(1+i)^n
The rate at which the cash flows are to be discounted is 9 percent
For the first year the cash flow is $250,000 and we can compute the pressent value of the cash flow as under
250,000/(1+0.09) = 250,000/1.09 = $229,357.80
Foe the second year the cash flow is $37,500
37,500/(1+0.09)^2= 37,500/1.1881 = $31,563
The present value of the cash flows for the subsequent years are provided as under
480,000/(1+0.09)^3 = 480,000/1.295 = $370,648.07
450,000/(1+0.09)^4 = 450,000/1.4116 = $318,791.34
550,000/(1+0.09)^5 = 550,000/1.5386 = $357,462.26
Adding up all the present values computed above, gives us the present value of cash flows
229,357.8 + 31,563 + 370,648.07 + 318,791.34 + 357,462.26 = $1,307,822 approx