Answer with explanation:
The Normalization Principle states that

Given
Thus solving the integral we get

The integral shall be solved using chain rule initially and finally we shall apply the limits as shown below

Applying the limits and solving for A we get
![I=(1)/(k)[(1)/(e^(kx))-(x)/(e^(kx))]_(0)^(+\infty )\\\\I=-(1)/(k)\\\\\therefore A=-k](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/physics/college/1riiwbalf0qpx2c6i5h7yxzo886p0vo9fe.png)