21.7k views
1 vote
If f(x) = 2x and g(x)=1/x, what is the domain of (fg)(x)

User Chrki
by
5.3k points

1 Answer

4 votes

Answer:

The domain is all real numbers except the number zero

Explanation:

we have


f(x)=2x


g(x)=(1)/(x)

we know that


(fg)(x)=f(g(x))=2((1)/(x))

Remember that

The denominator cannot be equal to zero

so

The domain is all real numbers except the number zero

In Interval notation the domain is

(-∞,0) ∪ (0,∞)

User Grapheneer
by
6.6k points