What is the answer to this question

asked May 18, 2020 189k views

1 vote

7.2k points

Please log in or register to add a comment.

4 votes

Answer:

Explanation:

$\cot( \alpha ) = (1)/( \tan( \alpha ) )$

$\alpha_(lll) = (5\pi)/(4) - \pi \\ \\ \alpha_(lll) = (\pi)/(4)$

$\cot( (\pi)/(4) ) = (1)/( \tan( (\pi)/(4) ) ) \\ \cot( (\pi)/(4) ) = (1)/( 1) = 1$

Darkiron answered May 22, 2020

6.8k points

Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

7.6m questions

10.2m answers